1. List 4 common symptoms of pneumonia the nurse might note on a physical exam.
- Tachypnea, fever with chills, productive cough, bronchial breath sounds.
2. State 4 nursing interventions for assisting the client to cough productively.
- Deep breathing, fluid intake increased to 3 liters/day, use humidity to loosen secretions, suction airway to stimulate coughing.
3. What symptoms of pneumonia might the nurse expect to see in an older client?
- Confusion, lethargy, anorexia, rapid respiratory rate.
4. What should the O2 flow rate be for the client with COPD?
- 1-2 liters per nasal cannula, too much O2 may eliminate the COPD client’s stimulus to breathe, a COPD client has hypoxic drive to breathe.
5. How does the nurse prevent hypoxia during suctioning?
- Deliver 100% oxygen (hyperinflating) before and after each endotracheal suctioning.
6. During mechanical ventilation, what are three major nursing intervention?
- Monitor client’s respiratory status and secure connections, establish a communication mechanism with the client, keep airway clear by coughing/suctioning.
7. When examining a client with emphysema, what physical findings is the nurse likely to see?
- Barrel chest, dry or productive cough, decreased breath sounds, dyspnea, crackles in lung fields.
8. What is the most common risk factor associated with lung cancer?
9. Describe the pre-op nursing care for a client undergoing a laryngectomy.
- Involve family/client in manipulation of tracheostomy equipment before surgery, plan acceptable communication method, refer to speech pathologist, discuss rehabilitation program.
10. List 5 nursing interventions after chest tube insertion.
- Maintain a dry occlusive dressing to chest tube site at all times. Check all connections every 4 hours. Make sure bottle III or end of chamber is bubbling. Measure chest tube drainage by marking level on outside of drainage unit. Encourage use of incentive spirometry every 2 hours.
11. What immediate action should the nurse take when a chest tube becomes disconnected from a bottle or a suction apparatus? What should the nurse do if a chest tube is accidentally removed from the client?
- Place end in container of sterile water. Apply an occlusive dressing and notify physician STAT.
12. What instructions should be given to a client following radiation therapy?
- Do NOT wash off lines; wear soft cotton garments, avoid use of powders/creams on radiation site.
13. What precautions are required for clients with TB when placed on respiratory isolation?
- Mask for anyone entering room; private room; client must wear mask if leaving room.
14. List 4 components of teaching for the client with tuberculosis.
- Cough into tissues and dispose immediately into special bags. Long-term need for daily medication. Good handwashing technique. Report symptoms of deterioration, i.e., blood in secretions.
1. Differentiate between acute renal failure and chronic renal failure.
- Acute renal failure: often reversible, abrupt deterioration of kidney function.
- Chronic renal failure: irreversible, slow deterioration of kidney function characterized by increasing BUN and creatinine. Eventually dialysis is required.
2. During the oliguric phase of renal failure, protein should be severely restricted. What is the rationale for this restriction?
- Toxic metabolites that accumulate in the blood (urea, creatinine) are derived mainly from protein catabolism.
3. Identify 2 nursing interventions for the client on hemodialysis.
- Do NOT take BP or perform venipunctures on the arm with the A-V shunt, fistula, or graft. Assess access site for thrill or bruit.
4. What is the highest priority nursing diagnosis for clients in any type of renal failure?
- Alteration in fluid and electrolyte balance.
5. A client in renal failure asks why he is being given antacids. How should the nurse reply?
- Calcium and aluminum antacids bind phosphates and help to keep phosphates from being absorbed into blood stream thereby preventing rising phosphate levels, and must be taken with meals.
6. List 4 essential elements of a teaching plan for clients with frequent urinary tract infections.
- Fluid intake 3 liters/day; good handwashing; void every 2-3 hours during waking hours; take all prescribed medications; wear cotton undergarments.
7. What are the most important nursing interventions for clients with possible renal calculi?
- Strain all urine is the MOST IMPORTANT intervention. Other interventions include accurate intake and output documentation and administer analgesics as needed.
8. What discharge instructions should be given to a client who has had urinary calculi?
- Maintain high fluid intake 3-4 liters per day. Follow-up care (stones tend to recur). Follow prescribed diet based in calculi content. Avoid supine position.
9. Following transurethral resection of the prostate gland (TURP), hematuria should subside by what post-op day?
- Fourth day
10. After the urinary catheter is removed in the TURP client, what are 3 priority nursing actions?
- Continued strict I&O; continued observations for hematuria; inform client burning and frequency may last for a week.
11. After kidney surgery, what are the primary assessments the nurse should make?
- Respiratory status (breathing is guarded because of pain); circulatory status (the kidney is very vascular and excess bleeding can occur); pain assessment; urinary assessment most importantly, assessment of urinary output.
1. How do clients experiencing angina describe that pain?
- Described as squeezing, heavy, burning, radiates to left arm or shoulder, transient or prolonged.
2. Develop a teaching plan for the client taking nitroglycerin.
- Take at first sign of anginal pain. Take no more than 3, five minutes apart. Call for emergency attention if no relief in 10 minutes.
3. List the parameters of blood pressure for diagnosing hypertension.
4. Differentiate between essential and secondary hypertension.
- Essential has no known cause while secondary hypertension develops in response to an identifiable mechanism.
5. Develop a teaching plan for the client taking antihypertensive medications.
- Explain how and when to take med, reason for med, necessary of compliance, need for follow-up visits while on med, need for certain lab tests, vital sign parameters while initiating therapy.
6. Describe intermittent claudication.
- Pain related to peripheral vascular disease occurring with exercise and disappearing with rest.
7. Describe the nurse’s discharge instructions to a client with venous peripheral vascular disease.
- Keep extremities elevated when sitting, rest at first sign of pain, keep extremities warm (but do NOT use heating pad), change position often, avoid crossing legs, wear unrestrictive clothing.
8. What is often the underlying cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm?
9. What lab values should be monitored daily for the client with thrombophlebitis who is undergoing anticoagulant therapy?
- PTT, PT, Hgb, and Hct, platelets.
10. When do PVCs (premature ventricular contractions) present a grave danger?
- When they begin to occur more often than once in 10 beats, occur in 2s or 3s, land near the T wave, or take on multiple configurations.
11. Differentiate between the symptoms of left-sided cardiac failure and right-sided cardiac failure.
- Left-sided failure results in pulmonary congestion due to back-up of circulation in the left ventricle. Right-sided failure results in peripheral congestion due to back-up of circulation in the right ventricle.
12. List 3 symptoms of digitalis toxicity.
- Dysrhythmias, headache, nausea and vomiting
13. What condition increases the likelihood of digitalis toxicity occurring?
- When the client is hypokalemic (which is more common when diuretics and digitalis preparations are given together).
14. What life style changes can the client who is at risk for hypertension initiate to reduce the likelihood of becoming hypertensive?
- Cease cigarette smoking if applicable, control weight, exercise regularly, and maintain a low-fat/low-cholesterol diet.
15. What immediate actions should the nurse implement when a client is having a myocardial infarction?
- Place the client on immediate strict bedrest to lower oxygen demands of heart, administer oxygen by nasal cannula at 2-5 L/min., take measures to alleviate pain and anxiety (administer prn pain medications and anti-anxiety medications).
16. What symptoms should the nurse expect to find in the client with hypokalemia?
- Dry mouth and thirst, drowsiness and lethargy, muscle weakness and aches, and tachycardia.
17. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate below ___ BPM. Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate above ___ BPM.
- bradycardia 60 bpm; tachycardia 100 bpm
18. What precautions should clients with valve disease take prior to invasive procedures or dental work?
- Take prophylactic antibiotics.
1. List 4 nursing interventions for the client with a hiatal hernia.
- Sit up while eating and one hour after eating. Eat small, frequent meals. Eliminate foods that are problematic.
2. List 3 categories of medications used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease.
- Antacids, H2 receptor-blockers, mucosal healing agents, proton pump inhibitors.
3. List the symptoms of upper and lower gastrointestinal bleeding.
- Upper GI: melena, hematemesis, tarry stools. Lower GI: bloddy stools, tarry stools. Similar: tarry stools.
4. What bowel sound disruptions occur with an intestinal obstruction?
- Early mechanical obstruction: high-pitched sounds; late mechanical obstruction: diminished or absent bowel sounds.
5. List 4 nursing interventions for post-op care of the client with a colostomy.
- Irrigate daily at same time; use warm water for irrigations; wash around stoma with mild soap/water after each colostomy bag change; pouch opening should extend at least 1/8 inch around the stoma.
6. List the common clinical manifestations of jaundice.
- Sclera-icteric (yellow sclera), dark urine, chalky or clay-colored stools
7. What are the common food intolerances for clients with cholelithiasis?
- Fried/spicy or fatty foods.
8. List 5 symptoms indicative of colon cancer.
- Rectal bleeding, change in bowel habits, sense of incomplete evacuation, abdominal pain with nausea, weight loss.
9. In a client with cirrhosis, it is imperative to prevent further bleeding and observe for bleeding tendencies. List 6 relevant nursing interventions.
- Avoid injectons, use small bore needles for IV insertion, maintain pressure for 5 minutes on all venipuncture sites, use electric razor, use soft-bristle toothbrush for mouth care, check stools and emesis for occult blood.
10. What is the main side effect of lactulose, which is used to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis?
11. List 4 groups who have a high risk of contracting hepatitis.
- Homosexual males, IV drug users, recent ear piercing or tattooing, and health care workers.
12. How should the nurse administer pancreatic enzymes?
- Give with meals or snacks. Powder forms should be mixed with fruit juices.
1. What diagnostic test is used to determine thyroid activity?
- T3 and T4
2. What condition results from all treatments for hyperthyroidism?
- Hypothyroidism, requiring thyroid replacement
3. State 3 symptoms of hyperthyroidism and 3 symptoms of hypothyroidism.
- Hyperthyroidism: weight loss, heat intolerance, diarrhea. Hypothyroidism: fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain.
4. List 5 important teaching aspects for clients who are beginning corticosteroid therapy.
- Continue medication until weaning plan is begun by physician, monitor serum potassium, glucose, and sodium frequently; weigh daily, and report gain of >5lbs./wk; monitor BP and pulse closely; teach symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome
5. Describe the physical appearance of clients who are Cushinoid.
- Moon face, obesity in trunk, buffalo hump in back, muscle atrophy, and thin skin.
6. Which type of diabetic always requires insulin replacement?
- Type I, Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)
7. What type of diabetic sometimes requires no medication?
- Type II, Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM)
8. List 5 symptoms of hyperglycemia.
- Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, weakness, weight loss
9. List 5 symptoms of hypoglycemia.
- Hunger, lethargy, confusion, tremors or shakes, sweating
10. Name the necessary elements to include in teaching the new diabetic.
- Teach the underlying pathophysiology of the disease, its management/treatment regime, meal planning, exercise program, insulin administration, sick-day management, symptoms of hyperglycemia (not enough insulin)
11. In less than ten steps, describe the method for drawing up a mixed dose of insulin (regular with NPH).
- Identify the prescribed dose/type of insulin per physician order; store unopened insulin in refrigerator. If opened, may be kept at room temperature for up to 3 months. Draw up regular insulin FIRST. Rotate injection sites. May reuse syringe by recapping and storing in refrigerator.
12. Identify the peak action time of the following types of insulin: rapid-acting regular insulin, intermediate-acting, long-acting.
- Rapid-acting regular insulin: 2-4 hrs. Immediate-acting: 6-12 hrs. Long-acting: 14-20 hrs.
13. When preparing the diabetic for discharge, the nurse teaches the client the relationship between stress, exercise, bedtime snacking, and glucose balance. State the relationship between each of these.
- Stress and stress hormones usually increase glucose production and increase insulin need; exercise can increase the chance for an insulin reaction, therefore, the client should always have a sugar snack available when exercising (to treat hypoglycemia); bedtime snacking can prevent insulin reactions while waiting for long-acting insulin to peak.
14. When making rounds at night, the nurse notes that an insulin-dependent client is complaining of a headache, slight nausea, and minimal trembling. The client’s hand is cool and moist. What is the client most likely experiencing?
- Hypoglycemia/insulin reaction.
15. Identify 5 foot-care interventions that should be taught to the diabetic client.
- Check feet daily & report any breaks, sores, or blisters to health care provider, wear well-fitting shoes; never go barefoot or wear sandals, never personally remove corns or calluses, cut or file nails straight across; wash daily with mild soap & warm water.
1. Differentiate between rheumatoid arthritis and degenerative joint disease in terms of joint involvement.
- Rheumatoid arthritis occurs bilaterally. Degenerative joint disease occurs asymmetrically.
2. Identify the categories of drugs commonly used to treat arthritis.
- NSAIDs (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) of which salicylates are the cornerstones (used when arthritic symptoms are severe).
3. Identify pain relief interventions for clients with arthritis.
- Warm, moist heat (compresses, baths, showers), diversionary activities (imaging, distraction, self-hypnosis, biofeedback), and medications.
4. What measures should the nurse encourage female clients to take to prevent osteoporosis?
- Estrogen replacement after menopause, high calcium and vitamin D intake beginning in early adulthood, calcium supplements after menopause, and weight-bearing exercise.
5. What are the common side effects of salicylates?
- GI irritation, tinnitus, thrombocytopenia, mild liver enzyme elevation.
6. What is the priority nursing intervention used with clients taking NSAIDs?
- Administer or teach client to take drugs with food or milk.
7. List 3 of the most common joints that are replaced.
- Hip, knee, finger.
8. Describe post-op stump care (after amputation) for the 1st 48 hours.
- Elevate stump first 24 hours. Do not elevate stump after 48 hours. Keep stump in extended position and turn prone three times a day to prevent flexion contracture.
9. Describe nursing care for the client who is experiencing phantom pain after amputation.
- Be aware that phantom pain is real and will eventually disappear. Administer pain medication; phantom pain responds to medication.
10. A nurse discovers that a client who is in traction for a long bone fracture has a slight fever, is short of breath, and is restless. What does the client most likely have?
- Fat embolism, which is characterized by hypoxemia, respiratory distress, irritability, restlessness, fever and petechiae.
11. What are the immediate nursing actions if fat embolization is suspected in a fracture/orthopedic client?
- Notify physician STAT, draw blood gas results, assist with endotracheal intubation and treatment of respiratory failure.
12. List 3 problems associated with immobility.
- Venous thrombosis, urinary calculi, skin integrity problems.
13. List 3 nursing interventions for the prevention of thromboembolism in immobilized clients with musculoskeletal problems.
- Passive range of motion exercises, elastic stockings, and elevation of foot of bed 25 degrees to increase venous return.
1. What are the classifications of the commonly prescribed eye drops for glaucoma?
- Parasympathominetics for pupillary constriction. Beta-adrenergic receptor-blocking agents to inhibit formation of aqueous humor. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors to reduce aqueous humor production, and prostaglandin agonists to increase aqueous humor outflow.
2. Identify 2 types of hearing loss.
- Conductive (transmission of sound to inner ear is blocked) and sensorineural (damage to 8th cranial nerve)
3. Write 4 nursing interventions for the care of the blind person and 4 nursing interventions for the care of the deaf person.
- Care of the blind: announce presence clearly, call by name, orient carefully to surroundings, guide by walking in front of client with his/her hand in your elbow. Care of deaf: reduce distraction before beginning conversation, look and listen to client, give client full attention if they are a lip reader, face client directly.
4. In your own words describe the Glasgow Coma Scale.
- An objective assessment of the level of consciousness based on a score of 3 to 15, with scores of 7 or less indicative of coma.
5. List 4 nursing diagnoses for the comatose client in order of priority.
- Ineffective breathing pattern, ineffective airway clearance, impaired gas exchange, and decreased cardiac output.
6. State 4 independent nursing interventions to maintain adequate respirations, airway, and oxygenation in the unconscious client.
- Position for maximum ventilation (prone or semi-prone and slightly to one side), insert airway if tongue obstructing; suction airway efficiently, monitor arterial pO2 and pCO2 and hyperventilate with 100% oxygen before suctioning.
7. Who is at risk for cerebral vascular accidents?
- Persons with history of hypertension, previous TIAs, cardiac disease (atrial flutter/fibrillation), diabetes, oral contraceptive use, and the elderly.
8. Complications of immobility include the potential for thrombus development. State 3 nursing interventions to prevent thrombi.
- Frequent range of motion exercises, frequent (q2h) position changes, and avoidance of positions which decrease venous return.
9. List 4 rationales for the appearance of restlessness in the unconscious client.
- Anoxia, distended bladder, covert bleeding, or a return to consciousness
10. What nursing interventions prevent corneal drying in a comatose client?
- Irrigation of eyes PRN with sterile prescribed solution, application of opthalmic ointment q8h, close assessment for corneal ulceration/drying.
11. When a comatose client on IV hyperalimentation begin to receive tube feedings instead?
- When peristalsis resumes as evidenced by active bowel sounds, passage of flatus or bowel movement.
12. What is the most important principle in a bowel management program for a neurologic client?
- Establishment of REGULARITY
13. Define cerebral vascular accident.
- A disruption of blood supply to a part of the brain, which results in sudden loss of brain function.
14. A client with a diagnosis of CVA presents with symptoms of aphasia, right hemiparesis, but no memory or hearing deficit. In what hemisphere has the client suffered a lesion?
15. What are the symptoms of spinal shock?
- Hypotension, bladder and bowel distention, total paralysis, lack of sensation below lesion.
16. What are the symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia?
- Hypertension, bladder and bowel distention, exaggerated autonomic responses, headache, sweating, goose bumps, and bradycardia
17. What is the most important indicator of increased ICP?
- A change in the level of responsiveness
18. What vital sign changes are indicative of increased ICP?
- Increased BP, widening pulse pressure, increased or decreased pulse, respiratory irregularities and temperature increase.
19. A neighbor calls the neighborhood nurse stating that he was knocked hard to the floor by his very hyperactive dog. He is wondering what symptoms would indicate the need to visit an emergency room. What should the nurse tell him to do?
- Call his physician now and inform him/her of the fall. Symptoms needing medical attention would include vertigo, confusion or any subtle behavioral change, headache, vomiting, ataxia (imbalance), or seizure.
20. What activities and situations should be avoided that increase ICP?
- Change in bed position, extreme hip flexion, endotracheal suctioning, compression of jugular veins, coughing, vomiting, or straining of any kind.
21. How do Hyperosmotic agents (osmotic diuretics) used to treat intracranial pressure act?
- Dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema by holding water in the renal tubules to prevent reabsorption, and by drawing fluid from the extravascular spaces into the plasma.
22. Why should narcotics be avoided in clients with neurologic impairment?
- Narcotics mask the level of responsiveness as well as pupillary response.
23. Headache and vomiting are symptoms of many disorders. What characteristics of these symptoms would alert the nurse to refer a client to a neurologist?
- Headache which is more severe upon awakening and vomiting not associated with nausea are symptoms of a brain tumor.
24. How should the head of the bed be positioned for post-craniotomy clients with infratentorial lesions?
- Infratentorial – FLAT; Supratentorial – elevated
25. Is multiple sclerosis thought to occur because of an autoimmune process?
26. Is paralysis always a consequence of spinal cord injury?
27. What types of drugs are used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis?
- Anticholinesterase drugs, which inhibit the action of cholinesterase at the nerve endings to promote the accumulation of acetylcholine at receptor sires, which should improve neuronal transmission to muscles.
1. List 3 potential causes of anemia.
- Diet lacking in iron, folate and/or vitamin B12; use of salicylates, thiazides, diuretics; exposure to toxic agents such as lead or insecticides.
2. Write 2 nursing diagnoses for the client suffering from anemia.
- Activity intolerance and altered tissue perfusion.
3. What is the only intravenous fluid compatible with blood products?
- Normal saline
4. What actions should the nurse take if a hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs?
- Turn off transfusion. Take temperature. Send blood being transfused to lab. Obtain urine sample. Keep vein patent with normal saline.
5. List 3 interventions for clients with a tendency to bleed.
- Use a soft toothbrush, avoid salicylates, do not use suppositories.
6. Identify 2 sites, which should be assessed for infection in immunosuppressed clients.
- Oral cavity and genital area.
7. Name 3 food sources of vitamin b12.
- Glandular meats (liver), milk, green leafy vegetables.
8. Describe care of invasive catheters and lines.
- Use strict aseptic technique. Change dressings 2 to 3 times/week or when soiled. Use caution when piggybacking drugs, check purpose of line and drug to be infused. Use lines for obtaining blood samples to avoid “sticking” client when possible.
9. List 3 safety precautions for the administration of antineoplastic chemotherapy.
- Double check order with another nurse. Check for blood return prior to administration to ensure that medication does not go into tissue. Use a new IV site daily for peripheral chemotherapy. Wear gloves when handling the drugs, and dispose of waste in special containers to avoid contact with toxic substances.
10. Describe the use of Leucovorin.
- Leucovorin is used as an antidote with methotrexate to prevent toxic reactions.
11. Describe the method of collecting the trough and peak blood levels of antibiotics.
- Collection of trough: draw blood 30 minutes prior to administration of antibiotic. Collection of peak: draw blood 30 minutes after administration of antibiotic.
12. What is the characteristic cell found in Hodgkin’s disease?
13. List 4 nursing interventions for care of the client with Hodgkin’s disease.
- Protect from infection. Observe for anemia. Encourage high-nutrient foods. Provide emotional support to client and family.
14. List 4 topics you would cover when teaching an immunosuppressed client about infection control.
- Handwashing technique. Avoid infected persons. Avoid crowds. Maintain daily hygiene to prevent spread of microorganisms.
1. What are the indications for a hysterectomy in the client who has fibromas?
- Severe menorrhagia leading to anemia, severe dysmenorrhea requiring narcotic analgesics, severe uterine enlargement causing pressure on other organs, severe low back and pelvic pain.
2. List the symptoms and conditions associated with cystocele.
- Symptoms include incontinence/stress incontinence, urinary retention, and recurrent bladder infections. Conditions associated with cystocele include multiparity, trauma in childbirth, and aging.
3. What are the most important nursing interventions for the postoperative client who has had a hysterectomy with an A&P repair?
- Avoid rectal temps and/or rectal manipulation; manage pain; and encourage early ambulation.
4. Describe the priority nursing care for the client who has had radiation implants.
- Do not permit pregnant visitors or pregnant caretakers in room. Discourage visits by small children. Confine client to room. Nurse must wear radiation badge. Nurse limits time in room. Keep supplies and equipment within client’s reach.
5. What screening tool is used to detect cervical cancer? What are the American Cancer Society’s recommendations for women ages 30 to 70 with three consecutive normal results?
- Pap smear. Women ages 30 to 70 with 3 consecutive normal results may have pap smear every 2 to 3 years.
6. Cite 2 nursing diagnoses for a client undergoing a hysterectomy for cervical cancer.
- Altered body image related to uterine removal. Pain related to postoperative incision.
7. What are the 3 most important tools for early detection of breast cancer? How often should these tools be used?
- Breast self-exam monthly; mammogram baseline at age 35 followed by exams every 1 to 2 years in 40s and every year after age 50; physical examination by a professional skilled in examination of the breast.
8. Describe 3 nursing interventions to help decrease edema post mastectomy.
- Position arm on operative side on pillow. Avoid BP measurements, injections, or venipunctures in operative arm. Encourage hand activity and use.
9. Name 3 priorities to include in a discharge plan for the client who has had a mastectomy.
- Arrange for Reach-to-Recovery visit. Discuss the grief process with the client. Have physician discuss with the client the reconstruction options.
10. What is the most common cause of nongonococcal urethritis?
- Chlamydia trachomatis
11. What is the causative agent for syphilis?
- Treponema pallidum (spirochete bacteria)
12. Malodorous, frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal discharge is characteristic of which STD?
- Trichomonas vaginalis
13. Which STD is characterized by remissions and exacerbations in both males and females?
- Herpes Simplex Type II
14. Outline a teaching plan for the client with an STD.
- Signs and symptoms of STD. Mode of transmission. Avoid sex while infected. Provide concise written instructions regarding treatment and request a return verbalization to ensure the client understands. Teach “safer sex” practices.
1. List 4 categories of burns.
- Thermal, radiation, chemical, electrical
2. Burn depth is a measure of severity. Describe the characteristics of superficial partial-thickness, deep partial-thickness, and full-thickness burns.
- Superficial partial-thickness: 1st degree = pink to red skin (i.e., sunburn), slight edema, and pain relieved by cooling. Deep partial-thickness: 2nd degree = destruction of epidermis and upper layers of dermis; white or red, very edematous, sensitive to touch and cold air, hair does not pull out easily. Full-thickness: 3rd degree = total destruction of dermis and epidermis; reddened areas do not blanch with pressure, not painful, inelastic, waxy white skin to brown, leathery eschar.
3. Describe fluid management in the emergent phase, acute phase, and rehabilitation phase of the burned client.
- Stage I (Emergent phase): Replacement of fluids is titrated to urine output. Stage II (Acute phase): Maintain patent infusion site in case supplemental IV fluids are needed; heparin lock is helpful; may use colloids. Stage III (Rehabilitation phase): No extra fluids needed, but high-protein drinks are recommended.
4. Describe pain management of the burned client.
- Administer pain medication, especially prior to dressing wound (usually Morphine 10 mg). Teach distraction/relaxation techniques. Teach use of guided imagery.
5. Outline admission care of the burned client.
- Provide a patent airway as intubation may be necessary. Determine baseline data. Initiate fluid and electrolyte therapy. Administer pain medication. Determine depth and extent of burn. Administer tetanus toxoid. Insert NG tube.
6. Nutritional status is a major concern when caring for a burned client. List 3 specific dietary interventions used with burned clients.
- High-calorie, high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet. Medications with juice or milk. NO “free” water. Tube feeding at night. Maintain accurate, daily calorie counts. Weigh client daily.
7. Describe the method of extinguishing each of the following burns: thermal, chemical and electrical.
- Thermal: remove clothing, immerse in tepid water. Chemical: flush with water or saline. Electrical: separate client from electrical source.
8. List 4 signs of an inhalation burn.
- Singed nasal hairs, circumoral burns; sooty or bloody sputum, hoarseness, and pulmonary signs including: assymetry of respirations, rales or wheezing.
9. Why is the burned client allowed NO “free” water?
- Water may interfere with electrolyte balance. Client needs to ingest food products with highest biological value.
10. Describe an autograft.
- Use of client’s own skin for grafting.
THERAPEUTIC COMMUNICATION TREATMENT MODALITIES:
1. After the 4th group meeting, the informal leader makes a statement that she believes she can help the group more than the assigned facilitator and has better credentials. Identify the group dynamics and stage of development.
- The informal leader is “testing,” which is a behavior indicative of a new group trying to establish trust. This group is still in the orientation phase of development.
2. On an in-patient psychiatric unit, clients are expected to get up at a certain time, attend breakfast at a certain time, and come for their medication at the correct time. What form of therapy is incorporated into this unit? - Milieu.
3. The wife of a man killed in a motor vehicle accident has just arrived at the emergency room and is told of her husband’s death. What nursing actions are appropriate for dealing with this crisis?
- Take woman to a quiet room, ask her if there are family, friends, or clergy you can call for her. Assess her need for medication and discuss with physician. Stay with her, be firm and directive, and assess previous successful coping strategies.
4. A 10 yr. old is admitted to the children’s unit of the psychiatric facility after stabbing his sister. His behavior is extremely aggressive with the other children on the unit. Using a behavior modification approach with positive reinforcement, design a treatment plan for this child.
- Assess what activities he enjoys. Set up a token system – when he displays non-aggressive behavior, he earns a token good towards participating in the activity selected. He loses a token when he becomes aggressive.
5. The 10 yr. old, his sister, mother, and the mother’s live in boyfriend are asked to attend a therapy meeting. Who is the “client” that will be treated during this session?
- The entire family.
6. A 66 yr. old woman is admitted to the psychiatric unit with agitated depression. She has not responded to antidepressants in the past. What would be the medical treatment of choice for this client?
- Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
7. Describe the nurse’s role in preparing clients for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
- Give accurate, non-judgmental information about the treatment. Explore client’s concerns. Administer the following as ordered: Atropine sulfate to dry oral secretions, a quick-acting barbiturate to induce anesthesia such as Brevital Sodium, and a muscle relaxant such as Anectine. Check emergency equipment and O2 are available.
8. Describe the nursing interventions used to care for a client during and after electroconvulsive therapy.
- Maintain patent airway. Check vital signs every 15 minutes until alert. Remain with client following treatment until conscious. Reorient, if confused.
1. State 5 autonomic responses to anxiety.
- Shortness of breath, heart palpitations, dizziness, diaphoresis, frequent urination.
2. Identify the defense mechanism used by a person who feels guilty about masturbating as a child, and develops a hand-washing compulsion as an adult.
3. Identify anxiety-reducing strategies the nurse can teach.
- Deep breathing techniques, visualization, relaxation techniques, exercise, biofeedback.
4. Which levels of anxiety facilitate learning?
- Mild to moderate.
5. A Vietnam veteran is plagued by nightmares and is found trying to strangle his roommate one night. List, in order of priority, the appropriate nursing interventions.
- Protect roommate from harm. Stay with client. If the client is agitated, administer anti-anxiety medications as ordered. Arrange for private room. Place client on homicidal precautions at night.
6. A client displays a phobic response to flying. Describe the desensitization process, which would probably be implemented.
- Talk about planes. Look at pictures of planes. Make plans to accompany client during a visit to airport. Accompany client into a plane. Allow the client to board a plane alone. Accompany the client on a short flight while listening to a relaxation tape.
7. A client is in the middle of an extensive ritual, which focuses on food during lunch. However, the client is scheduled for group therapy, which is about to start. What action should the nurse take?
- Allow client to complete the ritual. Discuss with the group leader the possibility of allowing the client to enter the group late. Arrange for client to begin lunch either so that the ritual can be completed prior to scheduled activities.
1. Describe the difference between primary and secondary gains.
- Primary gain is a decrease in anxiety, which results from some effort made to deal with stress. Secondary gain is the advantage, other than reduced anxiety, which occurs from the sick role.
2. Explain the difference between somatization and hypochondriasis.
- Somatization is used to describe a person who has many recurrent complaints with no organic basis as opposed to someone with hypochondriasis who has unrealistic or exaggerated that they interfere with social and occupational functioning.
3. An air traffic controller suddenly suddenly develops blindness. All physical findings are negative. The client’s history reveals an increased anxiety about job performance and fear about job security. What type of disorder is this? What purpose is the blindness serving? What nursing interventions are indicated?
- Conversion reaction. Decreases the anxiety about job. Assist with ADL, encourage expression of anger, teach relaxation techniques, and assist with the identification of anxiety related to job security and performance.
4. A 42 yr. old secretary has visited 7 different doctors in the last year with a complaint of chest pain, heart palpitations, and shortness of breath. She is certain she is having a heart attack in spite of the physician’s reassurance that all tests are normal. What type of disorder is this? What nursing actions are indicated?
- Hypochondriacal disorder. Decrease anxiety, teach relaxation techniques, explore relationship between the symptoms and past experiences with heart disease. Focus interactions away from bodily concerns.
5. Five years ago, a woman was involved in a motor vehicle accident that killed her friend who was a passenger in the car she was driving. Since that time, she has been unable to work because of sever back pain. The pain in unrelieved by prescribed medications. What type of disorder is this? What are the contributing causes? Describe the nursing care.
- Somatization disorder. Unresolved grief, anxiety. Evaluate pain medication use and/or abuse. Document duration and intensity of pain. Assist client to identify precipitating factors related to request for medication.
1. Describe the difference between psychogenic amnesia and a psychogenic fugue.
- Psychogenic amnesia is the sudden inability to recall certain events in one’s life. A psychogenic fugue state is characterized by the individual leaving home and being unable to recall their identity or their past.
2. What is a multiple personality disorder?
- Presence of two or more distinct personalities within an individual. The personalities emerge during stress.
3. List 3 possible causes of psychogenic amnesia.
- Traumatic event such as a threat of death or injury, an intolerable life situation, or a natural disaster.
4. Describe depersonalization disorder.
- A temporary loss of one’s reality, a loss of the ability to feel and express emotions, or a sense of “strangeness” in the surrounding environment. These individuals express a fear of “going crazy.”
1. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality = Orderliness, rigid.
2. Passive-Aggressive Personality = Passively resistant
3. Antisocial Personality = Inability to conform to social norms
4. Borderline Personality = Needy, always in a crisis, self-mutilating, unable to sustain relationships, splitting behavior
5. Dependent Personality = Unable to make decisions for self, allows others to assume responsibility for his/her life.
6. Narcissistic Personality = Feelings of self-importance and entitlement. May exploit others to get own needs met.
7. Histrionic Personality = Dramatic, flamboyant, needs to be the center of attention
8. Paranoid Personality = Suspicious, shows, mistrust of others, is watchful and secretive
9. Schizoid Personality = Isolated and introverted, has no close friends
10. Maladaptive Personality = Does not think anything he/she does is wrong, e.g., authorities are “out to get them.”
1. Describe the clinical symptoms of anorexia nervosa.
- weight loss of at least 15% of ideal/original body weight; hair loss; dry skin; irregular heart rate; decreased pulse; decreased blood pressure; Amenorrhea; dehydration; electrolyte imbalance.
2. State 2 psychodynamic differences between anorexia and bulimia.
- Anorexia nervosa deals with issues of control and a struggle between dependence and independence. Bulimia deals with loss of control (Binge eating) and guilt (purging).
3. An anorectic client has her friend bring her several cookbooks so she can plan a party when she is discharged. What nursing intervention is appropriate in addressing this behavior?
- Discuss activities that don’t involve food, which may take place after discharge. Discuss the cookbooks with the treatment team and, if the treatment plan indicates, take books from client.
4. Anorexia nervosa may be precipitated by what etiologic factors?
- Mother-daughter conflicts usually focusing on independence/dependence issues; discomfort with maturation; need for control; desire for perfection
5. What might the initial treatment include for a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa?
- Blood work to evaluate electrolyte status; replenish electrolytes and fluids as indicated; carefully monitor for evidence of vomiting.
1. Identify physiologic changes, which often occur with depression.
- Weight change (loss or gain), constipation, fatigue, lack of sexual interest, somatic complaints, and sleep disturbances.
2. A client, who has been withdrawn and tearful, comes to breakfast one morning smiling and interacting with her peers. Prior to breakfast, she gave her roommate her favorite necklace. What actions should the nurse take and why?
- Assess for suicidal ideation, plan and means to carry out plan. Place on precautions as indicated. A sudden change in mood and giving away possessions are two possible signs that a suicide plan has been developed.
3. Name the components of a suicide assessment.
- Existence of a plan, method, availability of method chosen, lethality of method chosen, identified support system, and history of previous attempts.
4. A client on your unit refuses to go to group therapy. What is the most appropriate nursing interventions?
- Accompany client to the group; do not give client option. Client needs to be mobilized.
5. A client is standing on a table loudly singing the “Star Spangled Banner” encircled by sheets, which have been set afire. In order of priority, describe appropriate nursing actions.
- Remove client and other persons in the vicinity to a safe area and activate hospital fire plan. When area is safe, place client in quiet environment with low stimulation and medicate as indicated.
1. A client is sitting alone, talking quietly. There is no one around. What nursing action should be taken?
- Quietly approach client and note the behavior. Assess content of the hallucinations, e.g., “I noticed you talking. Are you hearing voices? Can you tell me about the voices you are hearing?”
2. A client dials 222-2222 and asks for his fiance, Candice Bergen. This is an example of what type of thought disorder?
- Delusion of grandeur
3. A client has been sitting in the same position for 2 hours. He is mute. What type of schizophrenia is this client experiencing? Describe appropriate nursing interventions for this client?
- Catatonic: Spend time with client; assist with ADL; be alert to potential for violence toward self/others; be aware of fluid and nutrition needs.
4. A client is very agitated. He believes that the CIA has tapped the phone, is sending messages through the television, and that you are an agent who has been planted by the agency. In order of priority, list the appropriate nursing actions to intervene in this situation. What type of delusion is this client experiencing?
- Approach client and offer solitary activity to distract. Assess need for medication. Encourage verbalization of feelings and promote outlet for expression. Paranoid disorder with delusions of reference (CIA).
5. The nurse asks the client, “What brought you to the hospital?” The client’s response is, “The bus.” What type of thinking is this client exhibiting?
1. Three days ago, a client was admitted to the medical unit for a GI bleed. His BP and pulse rate gradually increased, and he developed a low-grade fever. What assessment data should the nurse obtain? What kind of anticipatory planning should the nurse develop?
- Obtain a drug and alcohol consumption assessment including type, frequency, and time of last dose/drink. Call the physician and report findings. Anticipate withdrawal/delirium tremens. Provide a quiet, safe environment. Place on seizure precautions. Anticipate giving a medication like Librium.
2. What physical signs might indicate that a client is abusing intravenous medications?
- Needle track marks; cellulitis at puncture site; poor nutritional status.
3. What behaviors would indicate to the nurse manager that an employee has a possible substance abuse problem?
- Change in work performance, withdrawal, increase in absences (especially Monday or Friday), increase in number of times tardy, long breaks, late returning from lunch.
4. A client becomes extremely agitated, abusive, and very suspicious. He is currently undergoing detoxification from alcohol with Librium 25 mg q6h. What nursing actions are indicated?
- Notify the physician immediately and anticipate an increase in dose or frequency of Librium. Provide a quiet, safe environment. Approach in a quiet, calm manner. Avoid touching client.
5. A client, in the third week of cocaine rehabilitation program, returns from an unsupervised pass. The nurse notices that he is euphoric and is socializing with the other clients more than he has in the past. What nursing actions are indicated?
- Notify the physician of observed behavior change. Get a urine drug screen as ordered. Confront client with observed behavior change.
1. What family dynamics are often seen in child abuse cases?
- Parent sees child as “different” from other children. Parent sees child to meet their own needs. Parent seldom touches or responds to child. Parent may be very critical of child. Family history of frequent moves, unstable employment, marital discord, and family violence. One parent answers all the questions.
2. What behavior might the nurse observe in a child who is abused?
- Child may appear frightened and withdrawn in the presence of parent or adult.
3. Identify nursing interventions for dealing with an abused child.
- Must report all cases of suspected abuse to appropriate local/state agency. Take color photographs of injuries. Document factual, objective statements of child’s physical condition, child-family interactions, and interviews with family. Establish trust, and care for the child’s physical problems. These are the PRIMARY and IMMEDIATE needs of these children. Recognize own feelings of disgust and contempt for the parents. Teach basic child development and parenting skills to family.
4. When does battering of women often begin or escalate?
- During pregnancy.
5. What dynamics prevent a battered spouse from leaving the battering situation?
- A woman in a battering relationship usually lacks self-confidence and feels trapped. She is often embarrassed to tell friends and family, so she becomes isolated and dependent upon the abuser.
6. Why is elder abuse so under reported?
- It is difficult for an elderly person to admit abuse for fear of being placed in a nursing home or being abandoned.
7. What types of abuse are seen in the elderly?
- Abuse can be physical, verbal, psychosocial, exploitive, or physical neglect.
8. Identify nursing interventions for working with a rape survivor?
- Communicate non-judgmental acceptance. Provide physical care to treat injuries. Give clear, concise explanations of all procedures to be performed. Notify police, encourage victim to prosecute. Collect and label evidence carefully in the presence of a witness. Document factual, objective statements of physical condition; record client’s EXACT WORDS in describing the assault. Notify Rape Crisis Team or counselor if available in the community. Allow discussion of feelings about the assault. Advise of potential for venereal disease, HIV, or pregnancy and describe medical care available.
ORGANIC MENTAL DISEASES:
1. List 5 causes of delirium.
- Infection, alcohol withdrawal, electrolyte imbalance, sleep deprivation, brain injury, i.e., subdural hematomas
2. Describe the nursing care for a client with Alzheimer’s disease.
- Provide a safe, consistent environment. (Do not make changes if possible. Change increases anxiety and confusion.) Stick to routines. If client wanders, make sure they have a nametag. Provide assistance as needed with ADL. Make sure bathroom is clearly labeled.
3. Identify 3 or more causes of dementia.
- Alzheimer’s disease, multi-infarcts (brain), Huntington’s chorea, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease.
CHILDHOOD AND ADOLESCENT DISORDERS:
1. A 7 yr. old boy is disruptive in the classroom and is described by his parents as “hyperactive.” What is the most probable psychiatric disorder? What are the signs and symptoms of this disorder? What drug is usually prescribed for this disorder?
- Attention deficit disorder (ADD/ADHD). More prevalent in boys, failure to listen or follow instructions. Difficulty playing quietly, disruptive, impulsive behavior, difficulty sitting still, distractibility to external stimuli, excessive talking, shifts from one unfinished task to another, and underachievement in school performance. Ritalin.
2. A 15 yr. old boy is threatening to drop out of school. His parents, both alcoholics, say they can’t stop him. He has just been arrested for stealing a car and breaking into a house. What is the most probable disorder? Develop nursing diagnoses and interventions for this disorder.
- Conduct disorder.
A. Potential for violence related to…depending on client.
B. Disturbance in self-esteem related to…depending on client.
C. Ineffective family coping related to…depending on client.
D. Assess verbal/nonverbal cues for escalating behavior to decrease outbursts. Use a non-authoritarian approach. Avoid asking “why” questions. Initiate a “show of force” for a child who is out of control. Initiate suicide precautions when assessment indicates risk. Use “quiet room” when external control is needed. Clarify expressions or jargon if meaning is unclear. Redirect angry feelings to “safe” alternative such as pillow or punching bag. Implement behavior modification therapy if indicated. Role-play new coping strategies.
GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT:
1. When does birth length double? = by 4 years
2. When does the child sit unsupported? = 8 months
3. When does a child achieve 50% of adult height? = 2 years
4. When does a child throw a ball overhand? = 18 months
5. When does a child speak 2-3 word sentences? = 2 years
6. When does a child use scissors? = 4 years
7. When does a child tie his/her shoes? = 5 years
CHILD HEALTH PROMOTION:
1. List 2 contraindications for live virus immunization.
- Immunocompromised child or a child in a household with an immunocompromised individual.
2. List 3 classic signs and symptoms of measles.
- Photophobia, confluent rash that begins on the face and spreads dowward, and Koplik’s spots on the buccal mucosa.
3. List the signs and symptoms of iron deficiency.
- Anemia, pale conjunctiva, pale skin color, atrophy of papillae on tongue, brittle/ridged/spoon-shaped nails, and thyroid edema.
4. Identify food sources for Vitamin A.
- Liver, sweet potatoes, carrots, spinach, peaches, and apricots.
5. What disease occurs with vitamin C deficiency?
6. What measurements reflect present nutritional status?
- Weight, skinfold thickness, and arm circumference.
7. List the signs and symptoms of dehydration in an infant.
- Poor skin turgor, absence of tears, dry mucous membranes, weight loss, depressed fontanel and decreased urinary output.
8. List the laboratory findings that can be expected in a dehydrated child.
- Loss of bicarbonate/decreased serum pH, losso f sodium (hyponatremia), loss of potassium (hypokalemia), elevated Hct, and elevated BUN.
9. How should burns in children be assessed?
- Use the Lund-Browder chart, which takes into account the changing proportions of the child’s body.
10. How can the nurse BEST evaluate the adequacy of fluid replacement in children?
- Monitor urine output.
11. How should a parent be instructed to “child proof” a house?
- Lock all cabinets, safely store all toxic household items in locked cabinets, and examine the house from the child’s point of view.
12. What interventions should the nurse do FIRST in caring for a child who has ingested a poison?
- Assess the child’s respiratory, cardiac, and neurological status.
13. List 5 contraindications to administering syrup of ipecac.
- Coma, seizures, CNS depression, ingestion of petroleum-based products, and ingestion of corrosives.
14. What instructions should be given by phone to a mother who knows her child has ingested a bottle of medication?
- Administer syrup of ipecac if the child is conscious. Bring any emesis or stool to the emergency room. Bring the container in which the medicine was stored to the emergency room.
1. Describe the purpose of bronchodilators.
- Reverse bronchospasm
2. What are the physical assessment findings for a child with asthma?
- Expiratory wheezing, rales, right cough, and signs of altered blood gases.
3. What nutritional support should be provided for the child with cystic fibrosis?
- Pancreatic enzyme replacement, fat-soluble vitamins, and a high carbohydrate, high protein, moderate fat diet.
4. Why is genetic counseling important for the cystic fibrosis family?
- The disease is autosomal recessive in its genetic pattern.
5. List 7 signs of respiratory distress in a pediatric client.
- Restlessness, tachycardia, tachypnea, diaphoresis, flaring nostrils, retractions, and grunting
6. Describe the care of a child in a mist tent.
- Monitor child’s temperature. Keep tent edges tucked in. Keep clothing dry. Assess child’s respiratory status. Look at child inside tent.
7. What position does the child with epiglottis assume?
- Upright, sitting, with chin out and tongue protruding (“tripod” position).
8. Why are IV fluids important for the child with an increased respiratory rate?
- The child is at risk for dehydration and acid/base imbalance.
9. Children with chronic otitis media are at risk for developing what problem?
- Hearing loss
10. What is the most common post-operative complication following a tonsillectomy? Describe the signs and symptoms of this complication.
- Hemorrhage; frequent swallowing, vomiting fresh blood, and clearing throat.
1. Differentiate between a right to left and left to right shunt in cardiac disease.
- A left to right shunt moves oxygenated blood back through the pulmonary circulation. A right to left shunt bypasses the lungs and delivers unoxygenated blood to the systemic circulation causing cyanosis.
2. List the 4 defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot.
- VSD, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis and right ventricular hypertrophy
3. List the commons signs of cardiac problems in an infant.
- Poor feeding, poor weight gain, respiratory distress/infections, edema and cyanosis
4. What are the 2 objectives in treating congestive heart failure?
- Reduce the workload of the heart and increase cardiac output.
5. Describe nursing interventions to reduce the workload of the heart.
- Small, frequent feedings or gavage feedings. Plan frequent rest periods. Maintain a neutral thermal environment. Organize activities to disturb child only as indicated.
6. What position would best relieve the child experiencing a “tet” spell?
- Knee-chest position, or squatting.
7. What are common signs of digoxin toxicity?
- Diarrhea, fatigue, weakness, nausea and vomiting. The nurse should check for bradycardia prior to administration.
8. List 5 risks of cardiac catheterization.
- Arrythmia, bleeding, perforation, phlebitis, and obstruction of the arterial entry site.
9. What cardiac complications are associated with rheumatic fever?
- Aortic valve stenosis and mitral valve stenosis.
10. What medications are used to treat rheumatic fever?
- Penicillin, erythromycin, and aspirin.
1. What are the physical features of a child with Down syndrome?
- Simian creases of palms, hypotonia, protruding tongue, and upward/outward slant of eyes.
2. Describe “scissoring.”
- A common characteristic of spastic cerebral palsy in infants. The legs are extended and crossed over each other, the feet are plantar flexed.
3. What are 2 nursing priorities for a newborn with myelomeningocele?
- Prevention of infection of the sac and monitoring for hydrocephalus (measure head circumference; check fontanel; assess neurological functioning).
4. List the signs and symptoms of increased ICP in older children.
- Irritability, change in LOC, motor dysfunction, headache, vomiting, unequal pupil response, and seizures.
5. What teaching should parents of a newly shunted child receive?
- Signs of infection and increased ICP (decreased pulse, increased blood pressure). Shunt should not be pumped. Child will need revisions due to growth. Provide guidance for growth and development.
6. State the 3 main goals in providing nursing care for a child experiencing a seizure.
- Maintain patent airway, protect from injury, and observe carefully.
7. What are the side effects of Dilantin?
- Gingival hyperplasia of the gums, dermatitis, ataxia, and GI distress.
8. Describe the signs and symptoms of a child with meningitis?
- Fever, irritability, vomiting, neck stiffness, opisthotonos, positive Kernig’s sign, positive Brudzinski’s sign. Infant does not show all classic signs, but is very ill.
9. What antibiotics are usually ordered for bacterial meningitis?
- Ampicillin, penicillin, and/or Chloramphenicol.
10. How is a child usually positioned after brain tumor surgery?
- Flat on his/her side.
11. Describe the function of an osmotic diuretic.
- Osmotic diuretics remove water from the CNS to reduce cerebral edema.
12. What nursing interventions increase intracranial pressure?
- Suctioning and positioning/turning.
13. Describe the mechanism of inheritance for Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
- Duchenne muscular dystrophy is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait.
14. What is “Gower’s sign?”
- Gower’s sign is an indicator of muscular dystrophy. The child has to “walk” up legs using hands to stand.
1. Compare the signs and symptoms of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) with nephrosis.
- AGN: gross hematuria, recent strep infection, hypertension, and mild edema. Nephrosis: severe edema, massive proteinuria, frothy-appearing urine, anorexia.
2. What antecedent event occurs with acute glomerulonephritis?
- Beta-hemolytic strep infection
3. Compare the dietary interventions for acute glomerulonephritis and nephrosis.
- AGN: low-sodium diet with no added salt. Nephrosis: high-protein, low-salt diet.
4. What is the physiologic reason for the lab finding of hypoproteinemia in nephrosis?
- Hypoproteinemia occurs because the glomeruli are permeable to serum proteins.
5. Describe safe monitoring of prednisone administration and withdrawal.
- Long term prednisone should be given every other day. Signs of edema, mood changes, and GI distress should be noted and reported. The drug should be tapered, not discontinued suddenly.
6. What interventions can be taught to prevent urinary tract infections in children?
- Avoid bubble baths, void frequently; drink adequate fluids especially acidic fluids such as apple or cranberry juice, and clean genital area from front to back.
7. Describe the pathophysiology of vesicoureteral reflux.
- a malfunction of the valves at the end of the ureters allowing urine to reflux out of the bladder into the ureters and possibly the kidneys.
8. What are the priorities for a client with Wilms’ tumor?
- Protect the child from injury to the encapsulated tumor. Prepare the family/child for surgery.
9. Explain why hypospadias correction is done before the child reaches preschool age.
- Preschoolers fear castration, are achieving sexual identity, and acquiring independent toileting skills.
1. Describe feeding techniques for the child with cleft lip or palate.
- Lamb’s nipple, or prosthesis. Feed child upright with frequent bubbling.
2. List the signs and symptoms of esophageal atresia with TEF.
- choking, coughing, cyanosis, and excess salivation.
3. What nursing actions are initiated for the newborn with suspected esophageal atresia with TEF?
- NPO immediately and suction secretions.
4. Describe the post-op nursing care for an infant with pyloric stenosis.
- Maintain Iv hydration and provide small, frequent oral feedings of glucose and/or electrolyte solutions within 4-6 hours. Gradually increase to full strength formula. Position on right side in semi-Fowler’s position after feeding.
5. Describe why a barium enema is used to treat intussusception.
- A barium enema reduces the telescoping of the intestine through hydrostatic pressure without surgical intervention.
6. Describe the pre-op nursing care for a child with Hirschsprung’s disease.
- Check vital signs and take axillary temps. Provide bowel cleansing program and teach about colostomy. Observe for bowel perforation; measure abdominal girth.
7. What care is needed for the child with a temporary colostomy?
- Family needs education about skin care and appliances. Referral to an enterostomal therapist is appropriate.
8. What are the signs of anorectal malformation?
- A newborn who does not pass meconium within 24 hours, meconium appearing from a fistula or in the urine, or an unusual appearing anal dimple.
9. What are the priorities for a child undergoing abdominal surgery?
- Maintain fluid balance (I&O, NG suction, monitor electrolytes), monitor vital signs, care of drains if present, assess bowel function, prevent infection of incisional area and other post-op complications, and support child/family with appropriate teaching.
1. Describe what information families should be given when a child is receiving oral iron preparations.
- Give oral iron on an empty stomach and with vitamin C. Use straws to avoid discoloring teeth. Tarry stools are normal. Increase dietary sources of iron.
2. List dietary sources of iron.
- Meat, green leafy vegetables, fish, liver, whole grains, legumes.
3. What is the genetic transmission pattern of hemophilia.
- It is an X-linked recessive chromosomal disorder, transmitted by the mother and expressed in male children.
4. Describe the sequence of events in a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia.
- A vaso-occlusive crisis is caused by clumping of red blood cells which cannot get through the capillaries, causing pain and tissue/organ ischemia. Lowered oxygen tension affects the HgbS, which causes sickling of the cells.
5. Explain why hydration is a priority in treating sickle cell disease.
- Hydration promotes hemodilution and circulation of the red blood cells through the blood vessels.
6. What should families and clients do to avoid triggering sickling episodes?
- Keep child well hydrated. Avoid known sources of infections. Avoid high altitudes. Avoid strenuous exercise.
7. Nursing interventions and medical treatment for the child with leukemia are based on what 3 physiological problems?
- Anemia (decreased erythrocytes). Infection (neutropenia). Bleeding thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets).
1. List normal findings in a neurovascular assessment.
- Warm extremity, brisk capillary refill, free movement, normal sensation of the affected extremity, and equal pulses.
2. What is compartment syndrome?
- Damage to the nerves and vasculature of an extremity due to compression.
3. What are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome?
- Abnormal neurovascular assessment: cold extremity, severe pain, inability to move the extremity, and poor capillary refill.
4. Why are fractures of the epiphyseal plate a special concern?
- Fractures of the epiphyseal plate (growth plate) may affect the growth of the limb.
5. How is skeletal traction applied?
- Skeletal traction is maintained by pins or wires applied to the distal fragment of the fracture.
6. What discharge instructions should be included for a child with spica cast?
- Check circulatio. Keep cast dry. Do not stick anything under cast. Prevent cast soilage during toileting or diapering. DO NOT TURN with abductor bar.
7. What are the signs and symptoms of congenital dislocated hip in infants?
- Unequal skin folds of the buttocks, ortalani sign, limited abduction of the affected hip, and unequal leg lengths.
8. How would the nurse conduct scoliosis screening?
- Ask the child to bend forward from the hips with arms hanging free. Examine the child for a curve of the spine, rib hump, and hip asymmetry.
9. What instructions should the child with scoliosis receive about the Milwaukee brace?
- Wear the brace 23 hours per day. Wear t-shirt under brace. Check skin for irritation. Perform back and abdominal exercises. Modify clothing. Encourage the child to maintain normal activities as able.
10. What care is indicated for a child with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?
- Prescribed exercise to maintain mobility, splinting of affected joints, and teaching medication management and side effects of drugs.
ADVANCED CLINICAL CONCEPTS
1. What PO2 value indicates hypoxemia?
- Below 50 mmHg
2. What blood value indicates hypercapnia?
- PCO2 above 45 mmHg
3. Identify the condition that exists when the PO2 is less than 50 mmHg and FiO2 is greater than 60%.
4. List 3 symptoms of respiratory failure in the adult.
- Dyspnea/tachypnea, intercostal retractions, cyanosis.
5. List 4 common causes of respiratory failure in children.
- Congenital heart disease, infection or sepsis. Respiratory distress syndrome, aspiration, fluid overload or dehydration.
6. What percentage of O2 should a child in severe respiratory distress receive?
- 100% O2
SHOCK/DIC (DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR CLOTTING):
1. Define shock.
- Widespread, serious reduction of tissue perfusion which leads to generalized impairment of cellular function.
2. What is the most common cause of shock?
3. What cause septic shock?
- Release of endotoxins from bacteria which act on nerves in vascular space in periphery, causing vascular pooling, reduced venous return, and decreased cardiac output, resulting in poor systemic perfusion.
4. What is the goal of treatment for hypovolemic shock?
- Quick restoration of cardiac output and tissue perfusion
5. What intervention is used to restore cardiac output when hypovolemic shock exists?
- Rapid infusion of volume-expanding fluids
6. It is important to differentiate between hypovolemic and cardiogenic shock. How might the nurse determine the existence of cardiogenic shock?
- History of MI with left ventricular failure or possible cardiomyopathy, with symptoms of pulmonary edema.
7. If a client is in cardiogenic shock, what might result from administration of volume expanding fluids, and what intervention can the nurse expect to perform in the event of such an occurrence?
- Pulmonary edema, administer cardiotonic drugs such as digitalis preparations
8. List 5 assessment findings found in most shock victims.
- Tachycardia. Tachypnea. Hypotension. Cool clammy skin. Decrease in urinary output.
9. What is the normal central venous pressure for an adult?
- 4 to 10 cm of H2O
10. Once circulating volume is restored, vasopressors may be prescribed to increase venous return. List the main drugs that are used.
- Epinephrine (Bronkaid). Dopamine (Dopram). Dobutamine (Dobutrex). Norepinephrine (Levophed). Isoproterenol (Isuprel).
11. What is the established minimum renal output per hour?
- 30 cc/hr
12. List 4 measurable criteria that are the major expected outcomes of a shock crisis.
- BP mean of 80 to 90 mmHg. PO2 >50 mmHg. CVP above 6 cm of H2O. Urine output at least 30 cc/hr.
13. Define DIC.
- A coagulation disorder in which there is paradoxical thrombosis and hemorrhage
14. What is the effect of DIC on PT, PTT, platelets, FSPs (FDPs)?
- PT: prolonged. PTT: prolonged. Platelets: decreased. Fribin split products: increased.
15. What drug is used in the treatment of DIC?
16. Name 4 nursing interventions to prevent injury in clients with DIC.
- Gently provide oral care with mouth swabs. Minimize needle sticks and use the smallest gauge needle possible when injections are necessary. Eliminate pressure by turning the client frequently. Minimize the number of BPs taken by cuff. Use gentle suction to prevent trauma to mucosa. Apply pressure to any oozing site.
1. What is the first priority when a client with an unwitnessed cardiac arrest is found?
- Begin CPR
2. Define myocardial infarction.
- Necrosis of the heart muscle due to poor perfusion of the heart.
3. What criteria should alert a client with known angina who takes nitroglycerin tablets sublingually to call the EMS?
- Unrelieved chest pain after 3 nitroglycerin tabs in 15 minutes.
4. After calling out for help and asking someone to dial for emergency services, what is the next action in CPR?
- According to American Heart Association guidelines published September 2000, you should call for help first for unresponsive adults and then begin the ABC’s of CPR. For unresponsive infants & children, CPR should be performed for 1 minute before placing a 911 call for help.
5. True or False: In feeling of presence of a carotid pulse, no more than 5 seconds should be used.
- FALSE: palpate for at least 5 to 10 seconds, recognizing that arrythmias or bradycardia could be occurring.
6. During one-rescuer CPR, what is the ratio of compressions to ventilations for an adult? During one-rescuer CPR, what is the ratio of compressions to ventialations for a child?
- 15:2 X 4 cycles for adult. 5:1 for a child and neonate.
7. What is the FIRST drug most likely to be used for an in-hospital cardiac arrest?
8. A client in cardiac arrest is noted on bedside monitor to be in pulseless ventricular tachycardia. What is the first action that should be taken?
- Defibrillation with 200 to 360 joules.
9. True or False: A precordial thump is routine activity for an in-hospital cardiac arrest.
- FALSE: only indicated in pulseless VT or VF or when ventricular asystole on monitor responds to a thump with a QRS complex.
10. How would the nurse assess the adequacy of compressions during CPR? How would the nurse assess for adequacy of ventilations during CPR?
- Check for a pulse. Watch for chest excursion and auscultate bilaterally for breath sounds.
11. If a person is choking, when should the rescuer intervene?
- When the person points to his/her throat and can no longer cough, talk, or make sounds.
12. One should NEVER make blind sweeps into the mouth of a choking child or infant. Why?
- Because the object might be pushed further down into the throat.
13. Why do ACLS guidelines recommend a decreased reliance on the use of bicarbonate during adult CPR?
- Because acidosis should be relieved with improved ventilation. Bicarbonate administration can actually contribute to increased CO2.
FLUID AND ELECTROLYTE BALANCE:
1. List 4 common caused of fluid volume deficit.
- GI causes: vomiting, diarrhea, GI suctioning. Decrease in fluid intake. Increase in fluid output such as sweating. Massive edema. Ascites.
2. List 4 common causes of fluid volume overload.
- CHF, renal failure; cirrhosis; excess ingestion of table salt or over-hydration with sodium-containing fluids.
3. Identify 2 examples of isotonic fluids.
- Ringer’s lactate. Normal saline.
4. List 3 systems which maintain acid-base balance.
- Lungs. Kidneys. Chemical buffers.
5. Cite the ABG normals for the following: pH, pCO2, HCO3.
- pH: 7.35-7.45. pCO2: 35 to 45 mmHg. HCO3: 22-26 mEq/L
6. Determine the following acid-base disorders:
A. pH- 7.50, pCO2 – 30, HCO3 – 26 = Respiratory alkalosis
B. pH- 7.30, pCO2 – 42, HCO3 – 20 = Metabolic acidosis
C. pH- 7.48, pCO2 – 42, HCO3 – 32 = Metabolic alkalosis
D. pH- 7.29, pCO2 – 55, HCO3 – 26 = Respiratory acidosis
1. List 5 variables that increase surgical risk.
- Age: very young and very old, obesity and malnutrition, preoperative dehydration/hypovolemia, preoperative infection, use of anticoagulants preoperative (aspirin)
2. Why is a client with liver disease at increased risk for operative complications?
- Impairs ability to detoxify medications used during surgery. Impairs ability to produce prothrombin to reduce hemorrhage.
3. Preoperative teaching should include demonstration and explanation of expected postoperative client activities. What activities should be included?
- Respiratory activities: breathing, use of spirometer. Exercises: range of motion, leg exercises, turning. Pain management: medications, splinting. Dietary restrictions: NPO to progressive diet. Dressings and drains. Orientation to recovery room environment.
4. What items should the nurse assist the client in removing before surgery?
- Contact lenses, glasses, dentures, partial plates, wigs, jewelry, prosthesis, make-up and nail polish.
5. How and why is the client positioned in the immediate postoperative period?
- Usually on the side or with head to side in order to prevent aspiration of any emesis.
6. List 3 nursing actions to prevent postoperative wound dehiscence/evisceration.
- Splint incision when coughing, encourage coughing/deep breathing in EARLY postoperative period when sutures are STRONG. Monitor for signs of infection, malnutrition, and dehydration. Encourage high-protein diet.
7. Identify 3 nursing interventions to prevent postoperative urinary tract infections.
- Avoid postoperative catheterization. Increase oral fluid intake. Empty bladder q4 to 6 hours, early ambulation.
8. Identify nursing/medical interventions to prevent postoperative paralytic ileus.
- Early ambulation. Limit use of narcotic analgesics. NG tube decompression.
9. List 4 nursing interventions to prevent postoperative thrombophlebitis.
- Perform in-bed leg exercises. Early ambulation. Apply antiembolus stockings. Avoid positions/pressure which obstruct venous flow.
10. During the intraoperative period, what activities should the operating room nurse do to ensure safety during surgery?
- Ascertain correct sponge, needle, and instrument count. Position client to avoid injury. Apply ground during electrocautery use. Strict use of surgical asepsis.
1. Identify the way HIV is transmitted.
- Transmitted through blood and body fluids, e.g., unprotected sexual contact with an affected person, sharing needles among drug abusing persons, infected blood products (rare), maternal to fetus transmission through breast milk, or breaks in universal precautions (needle sticks or similar occurrences).
2. Vertical transmission (from mother to fetus) occurs how often if mother is treated during pregnancy?
- Vertical transmission occurs 30 to 50% of the time.
3. Describe universal precautions.
- Protection from blood and body fluids is the goal of standard precautions. Standard precautions initiate barrier protection between caregiver and client through: Hand washing, use gloves, use gown and masks, eye protection as indicated, depending on activity of care and the likelihood of exposure. Prevent needle sticks by not capping needles.
4. What are the side effects of Amphotericin B?
- Side effects of amphotericin B (can be quite severe) include: Anorexia, Chills, Cramping, Muscle and joint pain, Circulatory problems.
5. What does the CD4 T cell count describe?
- CD4 T cell count describes the number of infection-fighting lymphocytes the person has.
6. Why does the CD4 T cell count drop in HIV infections?
- CD4 T cell count drops because the virus destroys CD4 T cells as it invades them and replicates.
7. Describe the ways a pediatric client might acquire HIV infection.
- Through infected blood products. Through sexual abuse. Through breast milk.
1. What modalities are associated with the Gate control pain theory?
- Massage, heat and cold, acupuncture, TENS.
2. How does past experiences with pain influence current pain experience?
- The more pain experienced in childhood, the greater the perception of pain in adulthood or with current pain experience.
3. What modalities are thought to increase the production of endogenous opiates?
- Acupuncture, administration of placebos, TENS.
4. What 6 factors should the nurse include when assessing the pain experience?
- Location, intensity, comfort measures, quality, chronology and subjective view of pain.
5. What mechanism is involved in the reduction of pain through the administration of NSAIDs meds?
- NSAIDs act by a peripheral mechanism at the level of damaged tissue by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis and other chemical mediators involved in pain transmission.
6. If narcotic agonist/antagonist drugs are administered to a client already taking narcotic drugs, what may be the result?
- Initiation of withdrawal symptoms
7. List 4 side effects of narcotic medications.
- Nausea/vomiting. Constipation. CNS depression. Respiratory depression.
8. What is the antidote for narcotic-induced respiratory depression?
- Narcan (Naloxone).
9. What is the 1st sign of tolerance to pain analgesics?
- Decreased duration of drug effectiveness
10. Which route of administration for pain medications has the quickest onset and the shortest duration?
- IV push or bolus.
11. List the 6 modalities that are considered non-invasive, non-pharmacologic pain relief measures.
- Heat and cold applications. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS). Massage. Distraction. Relaxation techniques. Biofeedback techniques.
DEATH AND GRIEF:
1. Identify the 5 stages of death and dying.
- Denial. Anger. Bargaining. Depression. Acceptance.
2. A client has been told of a positive breast biopsy report. She asks no questions and leaves the healthcare provider’s office. She is overheard telling her husband, :the doctor didn’t find a thing.” What coping style is operating at this stage of grief?
3. Your client, an incest survivor, is speaking of her deceased father, the perpetrator. “He was a wonderful man, so good and kind. Everyone thought so.” What would be the most useful intervention at this time?
- Gently point out both the positive and negative aspects of her relationship wit her father. Try to minimize the idealization of the deceased.
4. Your client feels responsible for his sister’s death because he took her to the hospital where she died. “If I hadn’t taken her there, they couldn’t have killed her.” It has been one month since her death. Is this response indicative of a normal or complicated grief reaction?
- This is a normal expression of anger and guilt, which occurs. Try to minimize the rumination of these thoughts.
5. Mrs. Green lost her husband 3 years ago. She has not disturbed any of his belongings and continues to set a place at the table for him nightly. Is this response indicative of a normal or complicated grief reaction?
- This is a dysfunctional grief reaction. Mrs. Green has never moved out of the denial stage of her grief work.
1. Identify the waveforms found in a normal EKG?
- P wave, QRS complex, T wave, ST segment, PR interval
2. In an EKG reading, which wave represents depolarization of the atrium?
- P wave
3. In an EKG reading, what complex represents depolarization of the ventricle?
- QRS complex
4. What does the PR interval represent?
- The time rquired for the impulse to travel from the atria through the A-V node
5. If the U wave is most prominent, what condition might the nurse suspect?
6. Describe the calculation of the heart rate using an EKG rhythm strip.
- Count the number of the R-R intervals in the 30 large squares and multiply by 10
7. What is the most important assessment data for the nurse to obtain on a client with arrythmia?
- Ability of the client to tolerate the arrhythmia
8. Calculate the rate of this rhythm strip.
- 90 to 100 depending on which set of 6 squares you use.
1. What are normal memory changes that occur as one ages?
- Short-term memory declines while long-term memory undergoes minimal change.
2. What symptoms might the nurse expect to see in an older person who has had an overload of changes as well as a respiratory infection?
3. Why can the BP of older adults be expected to increase?
- Heart work increases in response to increased peripheral resistance.
4. What is the major cause of respiratory disability in the elderly?
5. List 5 nursing interventions to promote adequate bowel functioning for older persons.
- Determine what is normal GI functioning for each individual, increase fiber and bulk in the diet, provide adequate hydration, encourage regular exercise, and encourage eating, small, frequent meals.
6. How can a female nurse increase the older client’s ability to hear her speak?
- Lower the pitch or tone of her voice.
7. What is the most common visual problem occurring in the elderly?
8. Describe the following conditions which occur in the elderly: Presbyopia, Arcus senilis, Presbycusis.
- Presbyopia – decreased ability of the eye to accommodate for close work.
- Arcus senilis – glossy white ring encircling the periphery of the cornea
- Presbycusis – decrease in hearing acuity, auditory threshold, pitch and tone discrimination, and speech intelligibility.
9. Describe the onset of Alzheimer’s disease.
- Slow, insidious onset with progressive downward course.
10. What is the purpose of a reality orientation group?
- To keep the client oriented to time, place, and person.
11. What are the 2 factors that cause decrease in excretion of drugs by the kidneys?
- Decrease in glomerular filtration and slowed organ functioning.
ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY OF REPRODUCTION:
1. State the objective signs that signify ovulation
- abundant, thin, clear cervical mucus; open cervical os; slight drop in BBT and then 0.5-1.0 F rise; ferning under the microscope
2. Ovulation occurs how many days before the next menstrual period?
- 14 days.
3. State three ways to identify the chronological age of a pregnancy (gestation)?
- 10 lunar months, 9 calendar months consisting of 3 trimesters of 3 months each, 40 weeks, 280 days.
4. What maternal position provides optimum fetal maternal/placental perfusion during pregnancy?
- The knee-chest position, but the ideal position of COMFORT for the mother which supports fetal/maternal/placental perfusion is the side-lying position off the abdominal vessels (vena cava, aorta)
5. Name the major discomforts of the first trimester and one suggestion for amelioration of each.
- Nausea and vomiting: crackers before rising. Fatigue: teach the need for rest periods/naps and 7-8 hours sleep at night.
6. If the first day of a woman’s last normal menstrual period was May 28, what is the estimated delivery date (EDD) using Nagele’s rule?
- Count back 3 months and add 7 days: March 7 (always give February 28 days).
7. At twenty weeks gestation, the fundal height would be ______ , the fetus would weigh approximately _______ and look like _____ .
- At the umbilicus; 300-400 grams; a baby with hair, lanugo and verniz, but without subcutaneous fat.
8. State the normal psychosocial responses to pregnancy in the 2nd trimester
- Ambivalence wanes and acceptance of pregnancy occurs; pregnancy becomes “real;” signs of maternal-fetal bonding occur.
9. Hemodilution of pregnancy peaks at ______ weeks and results in a/an ______ in a women’s Hct.
- 28-32 weeks; increase in Hct
10. State three principles relative to the PATTERN of weight gain in pregnancy.
- Total gain should average 24-30 lbs. Gain should be consistent throughout pregnancy. An average of 0.9 lb/week should be gained in the 2nd & 3rd trimester.
11. During pregnancy a woman should add ____ calories to her diet, and drink ____ of milk/day.
- 300 calories; 1 quart of milk
12. Fetal heart rate can be auscultated by Doppler at ____ weeks gestation.
- 10-12 weeks
13. Describe the schedule for prenatal visits for a low-risk pregnant woman.
- Once a month until 28 weeks, then once every week until delivery.
FETAL-MATERNAL ASSESSMENT TECHNIQUES:
1. Name 5 maternal variables associated with diagnosis of a high risk pregnancy
- Age (under 17 years or over 34 years of age), parity (over 5), <3 months between pregnancies, diagnosis of PIH, diabetes mellitus, or cardiac disease.
2. Is one ultrasound examination useful in determining the presence of intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)?
- no, serial measurements are needed to determine IUGR.
3. What does the biophysical profile (BPP) determine?
- Fetal well-being
4. List 3 necessary nursing actions prior to an ultrasound exam for a woman in the first trimester of pregnancy.
- Have client fill bladder. Do not allow client to void. Position supine with uterine wedge.
5. State the advantage of CVS over amniocentesis.
- Can be done between 8-12 weeks gestation with results returned within one week, which allows for decision about termination while still in 1st trimester.
6. Why are serum or amniotic AFP levels done prenatally?
- To determine if alpha-fetoprotein levels are elevated which may indicate the presence of neural tube defects; or low levels, which may indicate trisomy 21.
7. What is the most important determinant of fetal maturity for extrauterine survival?
- L/S ratio (lung maturity, lung surfactant development)
8. Name the 3 most common complications of amniocentesis.
- Spontaneous abortion, fetal injury, infection.
9. Name the 4 periodic changes of the fetal heart rate, their causes, and one nursing treatment for each.
- Acceleration: caused by burst of sympathetic activity; they are reassuring and require no treatment. Early decelerations: caused by head compression, are benign and caution the nurse to monitor for labor progress and fetal descent. Variable decelerations: caused by cord compression; change of position should be tried first. Late decelerations: are caused by UPI (uteroplacental insufficiency) and should be treated by placing client on her side and administering O2.
10. What is the most important indicator of fetal autonomic nervous system integrity/health?
- Fetal heart rate variability
11. Name 4 causes of decreased FHR variability.
- Hypoxia, acidosis, drugs, fetal sleep
12. State the most important action to take when a cord prolapse is determined.
- Examiner should position mother to relieve pressure on the cord with fingers until emergency delivery is accomplished.
13. What is a “reactive” non-stress test?
- FHR acceleration of 15 beats per minute for 15 seconds in response to fetal movement.
14. What are the dangers of nipple-stimulation stress test?
- The inability to control “oxytocin” dosage and the chance of tetany/hyperstimulation.
15. Normal fetal scalp pH in labor is ____ and values below ____ indicate true acidosis.
- 7.25-7.35 normal pH; 7.2 indicates true acidosis.
1. List five prodromal signs of labor the nurse might teach the client.
- lightening, braxton-hicks contractions increase, bloody show, loss of mucous plug, burst of energy, and nesting behaviors.
2. How is true labor discriminated from false labor?
- true labor: regular, rhythmic contractions that intensify with ambulation, pain in the abdomen sweeping around from the back, and cervical changes. False labor: irregular rhythm, abdominal pain (not in back) that decreases with ambulation.
3. State 2 ways to determine if the membranes have truly ruptured (ROM).
- Nitrazine testing: paper turns dark blue or black. Demonstration of fluid “ferning” under microscope.
4. Are psychoprophylactic breathing techniques prescribed for use by the stage and phase of labor?
- No, clients should use these techniques according to their discomfort level and change techniques when one is no longer working for relaxation.
5. Identify two reasons to withhold anesthesia and analgesia until the mid-active phase of Stage 1 labor.
- if given too early, can retard labor; if given too late, can cause fetal distress
6. Hyperventilation often occurs to the laboring client. What results from hyperventilation and what actions should the nurse take to relieve the condition?
- Respiratory alkalosis occurs which is caused by blowing off CO2 and is relieved by breathing into a paper bag or cupped hands.
7. Describe maternal changes that characterize the transition phase of labor.
- irritability, unwillingness to be touched but does not want to be left alone, nausea and vomiting, and hiccupping.
8. When should a laboring client be examined vaginally?
- Vaginal exams should be done prior to analgesia/anesthesia, to rule out cord prolapse, to determine labor progress if it is questioned, and to determine when pushing can begin.
9. Define cervical effacement.
- the taking up of the lower cervical segment into the upper segment; shortening of the cervix expressed in percent from 0-100% or complete effacement.
10. Where is the fetal heart rate best heard?
- through the fetal back in vertex, OA positions.
11. Normal fetal heart rate in labor is _____ = 110-160 bpm
Normal maternal BP in labor is _____ = <140/90
Normal maternal pulse in labor is _____ = <100 bpm
Normal maternal temperature in labor is _____ = <100.4 F
12. List four nursing actions for the 2nd stage of labor.
- make sure cervix is completely dilated before pushing is allowed. Assess FHR with each contraction. Teach woman to hold breath for no longer than 5 seconds. Teach pushing technique.
13. List 3 signs of placental separation.
- gush of blood; lengthening of cord, and globular shape of uterus
14. When should the postpartum dosage of Pitocin be administered? Why is it administered?
- give immediately after placenta is delivered to prevent postpartum hemorrhage/atony.
15. State one contraindication to the use of ergot drugs (Methergine).
16. State 5 symptoms of respiratory distress in the newborn.
- tachypnea, dusky color, flaring nares, retractions, and grunting.
17. If meconium was passed in utero, what action must the nurse take in the delivery room?
- arrange for immediate endotracheal tube observation to determine the presence of meconium below the vocal cords (prevents pneumonitis/meconium aspiration syndrome)
18. What score is considered a good Apgar score?
- 7 to 10
19. What is the purpose of eye prophylaxis for the newborn?
- prevent opthalmia neonatorum, which results from exposure to gonorrhea in vagina.
20. What is the danger associated with regional blocks?
- hypotension resulting from vasodilation below the block, which pools blood in periphery reducing venous return.
21. What is the major cause of maternal death when general anesthesia is administered?
- Aspiration of gastric contents
22. Why are PO medications avoided in labor?
- gastric activity stops or slows in labor, decreasing absorption from PO route, may cause vomiting.
23. State the best way to administer IV drugs in labor.
- at beginning of contraction, push a little medication in while uterine blood vessels are constricted, thereby reducing dose to fetus.
24. When is it dangerous to administer butorphanol (Stadol), an agonist/antagonist narcotic?
- when the client is an undiagnosed drug abuser of narcotics, it can cause immediate withdrawal symptoms.
25. Hypotension often occurs after the laboring client receives a regional block. What is one of the first signs the nurse might observe?
26. State three actions the nurse should take when hypotension occurs in a laboring client.
- turn client to left side. Adminsiter O2 by mask at 10L/min. increase speed of intravenous infusion (if it does not contain medication).
27. The fourth stage is defined as:
- the first 1 to 4 hours after delivery placenta.
28. What actions can the nurse take to assist in preventing postpartum hemorrhage?
- massage the fundus (gently) and keep the bladder emptied.
29. To promote comfort, what nursing interventions are used for a 3rd degree episiotomy, which extends into the anal sphincter?
- ice pack, withc hazel compresses, and no rectal manipulation
30. What nursing interventions are used to enhance maternal-infant bonding during the 4th stage of labor?
- withhold eye prophylaxis up to 2 hours. Perform newborn admission/routine procedures in room with parents. Encourage early initiation of breastfeeding. Darken room to encourage newborn to open eyes.
31. List 3 nursing interventions to ease the discomfort of afterpains.
- keep bladder empty. Provide warm blanket to abdomen. Administer analgesics ordered by doctor.
32. List symptoms of a full bladder, which might occur in the 4th stage of labor.
- fundus above umbilicus, dextroverted (to the right side of abdomen), increased bleeding (uterine atony).
33. What action should the nurse take first when a soft, boggy, uterus is palpated?
- perform fundal massage
34. What are the symptoms of hypovolemic shock?
- pallor, clammy skin, tachycardia, lightheadedness, and hypotension
35. How often should the nurse check the fundus during the 4th stage of labor?
- q15 minutes X 4 (1 hour), q30 minutes X 2 hours if normal.
NORMAL PUERPERIUM (POSTPARTUM):
1. A nurse discovers a postpartum client with a boggy uterus, displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus. What nursing action is indicated?
- Perform immediate fundal massage. Ambulate to the bathroom or use bedpan to empty bladder because cardinal signs of bladder distention are present.
2. Which women experience afterpains more than others?
- Breastfeeding women, multiparas, and women who experienced over distention of the uterus.
3. Upon admission to the postpartum room, 3 hours after delivery, a client has a temperature of 99.5F. What nursing actions are indicated?
- Probably elevated due to dehydration and work of labor; force fluids and retake temperature in an hour; notify physician if above 100.4F.
4. A client feels faint on the way to the bathroom. What nursing assessments should be made?
- Assess BP sitting and lying, assess Hgb and Hct for anemia.
5. What factor places the postpartum client at risk for thromboembolism?
- Increased clotting factors.
6. A breastfeeding mother complains of very tender nipples. What nursing actions should be taken?
- Have her demonstrate infant position on breast (incorrect positioning often causes tenderness). Leave bra open to air-dry nipples for 15 minutes 3X daily. Remove all “smothering” creams.
7. Three days postpartum, a lactating mother has full, warm, taut, tender breasts. What nursing actions should be taken?
- She is engorged; have newborn suckle frequently; use measures to increase milk flow; warm water, breast massage and supportive bra.
8. What information should be given to a client regarding resumption of sexual intercourse after delivery?
- Avoid until postpartum exam. Use water soluble jelly. Expect slight discomfort due to vaginal changes.
9. A woman has decided to take birth control pills as her contraceptive method. What should she do if she misses taking the pill two consecutive days?
- Take two pills for two days and use an alternate form of birth control.
10. A woman asks why she is urinating so much in the postpartum period. The nurse bases the response on what information.
- Up to 3,000 cc per day can be voided due to the reduction of the 40% plasma volume increase during pregnancy.
11. A woman’s white blood count returns 17,000; she is afebrile and has no symptoms of infection. What nursing action is indicated?
- Continue routine assessments; normal leukocytosis occurs during postpartal period because of placental site healing.
12. What is the most common cause of uterine atony in the first 24 hours postpartum?
- full bladder
13. What is the purpose of giving docusate sodium (Colace) to the postpartum client?
- to soften the stool in mother’s with 3rd and 4th degree episiotomies, hemorrhoids, or Cesarean section delivery.
14. What should the fundal height be at three days postpartum for a woman who has had a vaginal delivery?
- 3 fingerbreadths/cm below the umbilicus.
15. List 3 signs of positive bonding between parents and newborn?
- Calling infant by name, exploration of newborn head to toe, en face position.
THE NORMAL NEWBORN:
1. The newborn transitional period consists of the first ____ of life.
- 6 to 8 hours of life
2. The nurse anticipates which newborn will be more at risk for problems in the transitional period. State 3 predisposing factors to respiratory depression in the newborn.
- Cesarean delivery; magnesium sulfate given to mother in labor; asphyxia/fetal distress in labor.
3. What is the danger of heat loss to the newborn in the first few hours of life?
- Leads to depletion of glucose (very little glycogen storage in immature liver); begins to use brown fat for energy producing ketones causing subsequent ketoacidosis and shock.
4. Normal newborn temperature is ____ = 97.7 – 99.4F
Normal newborn heart rate is ____ = 110-160 bpm
Normal newborn respiratory rate is ____ = 30-60 bpm
Normal blood pressure is ____ = 80/50
5. The nurse records a temperature below 97F on admission of the newborn. What nursing actions should be taken?
- Place newborn in isolette or under radiant warmer and attach a temperature skin probe to regulate isolette or radiant warmer temperature. Wrap newborn double if no isolette or warmer available and put cap on head. Watch for signs of hypothermia and hypoglycemia.
6. True or False: the newborn’s head is usually smaller than the chest.
- FALSE: head is usually 2 cm larger unless severe molding occurred.
7. During the physical exam of the newborn, the nurse notes the cry is shrill, high-pitched, and weak. What are the possible causes?
- CNS anomalies, brain damage, hypoglycemia, drug withdrawal.
8. The nurse notes a swelling over the back part of the newborn head. Is this normal newborn variation?
- It depends on the exam. If it crosses suture lines and is a caput (edema), it is normal. If it does not cross suture lines, it is a cephalhematoma with bleeding between the skull and periosteum. This could cause hyperbilirubinemia. This is an abnormal variation.
9. What symptoms are common to most newborns with Down Syndrome?
- Low set ears, simian crease on palm, protruding tongue, Brushfield’s spots in iris, epicanthal folds.
10. Identify 3 ways t determine presence of congenital hip dislocation in the newborn.
- Hip click determination, asymmetrical gluteal folds, unequal limb lengths.
11. Should the normal newborn have a positive or negative Babinski reflex?
- Positive. The transient reflex is present until 12-18 months of age.
12. A small-for-gestational age newborn is identified as one who ____.
- Has a weight below the 10th percentile for estimated weeks of gestation.
13. When suctioning the newborn with a bulb syringe, which should be suctioned first, the mouth or the nose?
- Mouth; stimulating the nares can initiate inspiration which could cause aspiration of mucus in oral pharynx.
14. A new mother asks the nurse if circumcision is medically indicated in the newborn. How should the nurse respond?
- There is controversy concerning this issue, but we do know it causes pain and trauma to the newborn, and the medical indication may be unfounded.
15. Normal blood glucose in the term neonate is ____. = 40-80 mg/dl.
16. Why does the newborn need vitamin K in the 1st hour after birth?
- Sterile gut at delivery lacks intestinal bacteria necessary for the synthesis of vitamin K; vitamin K is needed in the clotting cascade to prevent hemorrhagic disorders.
17. Physiologic jaundice in the newborn occurs _____. It is caused by _____.
- Jaundice occurs at 2-3 days of life and is caused by immature liver’s inability to keep up with bilirubin production of normal RBC destruction.
18. When is the screening test for phenylketonuria done?
- At 2-3 days of life or after enough milk ingestion to determine body’s ability to metabolize amino acid phenylalanine.
19. A term newborn needs to take in _____ calories per pound per day. After the initial weight loss is sustained, the newborn should gain _____ per day.
- 50 calories; 1 ouncce or 30 grams.
20. List 5 signs and symptoms new parents should be taught to report immediately to a doctor or clinic.
- Lethargy; temperature >100F, vomiting, green stools, refusal of 2 feeds in a row.
1. What instructions should the nurse give the woman with a threatened abortion?
- Maintain strict bedrest for 24-48 hrs. Avoid sexual intercourse for two weeks.
2. Identify the nursing plans and interventions for a woman hospitalized with hyperemesis gravidarum.
- Weight daily; uring ketone checks 3X daily; progressive diet; check FHR q8h; monitor for electrolyte imbalances.
3. Describe discharge counseling for a woman after hydatidiform mole evacuation by D&C.
- Prevent pregnancy for one year. Return to clinic/MD for monthly hCG levels for 1 yr. Post-op D&C instructions; call if bright red vaginal bleeding or foul smelling vaginal discharge occurs, or temperature spike over 100.4F.
4. What condition should the nurse suspect if a woman of childbearing age presents to an emergency room with bilateral or unilateral abdominal pain with or without bleeding?
- Ectopic pregnancy
5. List 3 symptoms of abruptio placentae and 3 symptoms of placenta previa.
- Abruption: fetal distress; rigid, board-like abdomen; pain; dark red or absent bleeding. Previa: painless, bright red vaginal bleeding; fetal heart rate normal; soft uterus.
6. What specific information should the nurse include when teaching human papillomavirus detection & treatment?
- Detection of dry; wart-like growths on vulva or rectum. Need for pap smear in the prenatal period. Treatment with laser ablation (cannot use Podophyllin in pregnancy). Associated with cervical carcinoma in mother and respiratory papillomatosis in neonate.
7. State 3 principles pertinent to counseling and/or teaching a pregnant adolescent.
- Nurse must establish trust/rapport before counseling/teaching begins. Adolescents do not respond to an authoritarian approach. Consider the developmental tasks of identity and social/individual intimacy.
8. What complications are pregnant adolescents more prone to develop?
- PIH, IUGR, CPD, STDs, Anemia.
9. All pregnant women should be taught preterm labor recognition. Describe the warning symptoms of preterm labor.
- More than 5 contractions/hour, cramps, low, dull backache; pelvic pressure; change in vaginal discharge.
10. List the predisposing factors to preterm labor.
- Urinary tract infection; over distention of uterus; diabetes; PIH; cardiac disease; placenta previa, psychosocial factors, i.e., stress
11. When is preterm labor able to be arrested?
- Cervix is <4cm dilated, <50% effacement, and membranes intact and not bulging out of the cervical os.
12. What is the major side effect of beta-adrenergic (Terbutaline, Ritodrine) tocolytic drugs?
13. What special actions should the nurse take in the intrapartum period if preterm labor is unable to be arrested?
- Monitor the FHR continuously and limit drugs, which cross placental barriers to prevent fetal depression or further compromise.
14. A prolonged latent phase for a multipara is ____ and for a nullipara is ____. Multiparas average cervical dilatation is ____cm/hr in the active phase and nulliparas average cervical dilatation is ____cm/hr in the active phase.
- >14 hours, >20 hours, 1.5 cm/her; 1.2 cm/hr.
15. What are the major goals of nursing care related to pregnancy-induced hypertension with preeclampsia?
- Maintenance of uteroplacental perfusion; prevention of seizures; prevention of complications such as HELLP syndrome, DIC and abruption.
16. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat PIH. A) What is the purpose for administration of magnesium sulfate? B) What is the main action of magnesium sulfate? C) The antidote for magnesium sulfate? D) List the 3 main assessment findings indicating toxic effects of magnesium sulfate.
- A) Prevent seizures by decreasing CNS irritability B) Central nervous system depression (seizure prevention) C) Calcium Gluconate D) Reduced urinary output, reduced respiratory rate, and decreased reflexes.
17. What are the major symptoms of pregnancy induced hypertension (preeclampsia)?
- Increase in BP of 30mmHg systolic and 15 mmHg diastolic over previous baseline; hyperflexia; proteinuria (albuminuria); CNS disturbances; headache, and visual disturbances; epigastric pain.
18. What is the priority nursing action after spontaneous or artificial rupture of membranes?
- Assessment of the fetal heart rate.
19. What is the most common complication of oxytocin augmentation or induction of labor? List 3 actions the nurse should take if such a complication occurs.
- Tetany. Turn off Pitocin. Turn pregnant woman to side. Administer O2 by face mask.
20. List the symptoms of water intoxification from the antidiuretic hormone (ADH) effect of Pitocin (oxytocin).
- Nausea and vomiting, headache, and hypotension.
21. State 3 nursing interventions during FORCEPS delivery.
- Ensure empty bladder. Auscultate FHR before application, during, and between traction periods. Observe for maternal lacerations and newborn cerebral/facial trauma.
22. What is the cause of pregnancy induced hypertension?
- The person who determines the exact cause will be our next NOBEL prize winner! However, the underlying pathophysiology appears to be generalized vasospasm with increased peripheral resistance and vascular damage. This decreased perfusion results in damage to numerous organs.
23. What interventions should the nurse implement to prevent further CNS irritability in the PIH client?
- Darken room, limit visitors, maintain close 1:1 nurse/client ratio, place in private room, plan nursing interventions all together so client is disturbed as little as possible.
24. A woman on Orinase (oral hypoglycemic) asks the nurse if she can continue this medication in pregnancy. How should the nurse respond?
- No, oral hypoglycemic medications are teratogenic to the fetus. Insulin will be used.
25. Name 3 maternal & 3 fetal complications of gestational diabetes.
- Maternal: hypoglycemia, herperglycemia, ketoacidosis; Fetal: macrosomia, hypoglycemia at birth, fetal anomalies
26. When should the nurse hold the dose of magnesium sulfate and call the physician?
- When the client’s respirations are <12/minute, DTRs are absent, or urinary output is <100cc/4 hours
27. State 3 priority nursing actions in the postdelivery period for the client with PIH.
- Monitor for signs of blood loss. Continue to assess BP and DTRs q4 hours. Monitor for uterine atony.
28. When are the 2 most difficult times for control for the pregnant diabetic?
- Late in the 3rd trimester and in the postpartum period when insulin needs to drop sharply (the diabetogenic effects of pregnancy drop precipitously).
29. Why is regular insulin used in labor?
- It is short-acting, predictable, can be infused intravenously and discontinued quickly if necessary.
30. List 3 conditions clients with diabetes mellitus are more prone to develop.
- PIH, hydramnios; infection
31. When is cardiac disease in pregnancy most dangerous?
- At peak plasma volume increase, 28-32 weeks gestation and during Stage II labor.
32. Does insulin cross the placental/breast barrier?
- No, therefore insulin-dependent women may breastfeed.
33. The goal for diabetic management during labor is euglycemia. How is it defined?
- 60-100 mg/dl.
34. What contraceptive technique is recommended for diabetic women?
- Diaphragm with spermicide. Avoid birth control pills that contain estrogen and IUDs, which are an infection risk.
35. List the symptoms of cardiac decompensation in the laboring client with cardiac disease.
- Tachycardia, tachypnea, dry cough, rales in lung bases, dyspnea, and orthopnea.
36. What interventions can the nurse implement to maintain cardiac perfusion in a laboring cardiac client?
- Position client in a semi or high-Fowler’s position. Prevent Valsalva’s maneuvers. Position client in a supine or R/T for regional anesthesia. Avoid stirrups because of possible popliteal vein compression and decreased venous return.
37. Gentle counterpressure against the perineum during an emergency delivery prevents ____ and ____.
- Maternal lacerations, fetal cerebral trauma.
38. When may a vaginal birth after Cesarean (VBAC) be considered by a woman with a previous c-section?
- If a low uterine transverse incision was performed and can be documented AND if the original complication does
- not recur, i.e., CPD.
39. Prior to anesthesia for C-section delivery, the mother may be given an antacid or a gastric antisecretory drug (histamine receptor antagonist). State the reasons why these drugs are given.
- Antacid buffers alkalize the stomach secretions. If aspiration occurs, less lung damage ensues. An antisecretory drug reduces gastric acid, reducing the risk of gastric aspiration.
40. Clients who have had a C-section are prone to what post-op complications?
- Paralytic ileus, infection, thromboembolism, respiratory complications, and impaired maternal infant bonding.
POSTPARTUM HIGH-RISK DISORDERS:
1. May women with a positive HIV antibody test breastfeed?
- No, HIV has been found in breast milk.
2. What are the common side effects of antibiotics used to treat puerperal infection?
- GI adverse reactions: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and cramping. Hypersensitivity reactions: rashes, urticaria, and hives
3. How does the nurse differentiate symptomatology of cystitis from pylonephritis?
- Pyelonephritis has the same symptoms as cystitis (dysuria, frequency, and urgency) with the addition of flank pain, fever, and pain at costovertebral angle.
4. What are the signs of endometritis?
- Subinvolution (boggy, high uterus), lochia returns to rubra with possible foul smell, temperature 100.4F or higher, unusual fundal tenderness.
5. What are the nursing actions for endometritis and parametritis?
- Measures to promote lochial drainage; antipyretic measures (acetaminophen, cool baths); administration of analgesics and antibiotics as ordered; increase fluids with attention to high protein/high vitamin C diet.
6. State 4 risk factors or predisposing factors t opostpartum infection.
- Operative delivery, intrauterine manipulation , anemia or poor physical health, traumatic delivery, and hemorrhage.
7. State 4 risk factors or predisposing factors to postpartum hemorrhage.
- Dystocia or prolonged labor, over distention of the uterus, abruptio placentae, and infection
8. What immediate nursing actions should be taken when a postpartum hemorrhage is detected?
- Fundal massage. Notify MD if massage does NOT firm fundus. Count pads to estimate blood loss. Assess/record vital signs. Increase IV fluids and administer oxytocin infusion as ordered.
9. Must women diagnosed with mastitis stop breastfeeding?
- No, women who abruptly stop breastfeeding may make the situation worse by increasing congestion/engorgement and providing further media for bacterial growth. Client may HAVE to discontinue breastfeeding if pus is present or if antibiotics are contraindicated for neonate.
NEWBORN HIGH-RISK DISORDERS:
1. List the major CNS danger signals, which occur in the neonate.
- Lethargy, high-pitched cry, jitteriness, seizures, and bulging fontanels.
2. A baby is delivered blue, limp, and with a heart rate <100. The nurse dries the infant, suctions the oropharynx and gently stimulates the infant while blowing O2 over the face. The infant still does not respond. What is the next nursing action?
- Begin oxygenation by bag and mask at 30-50 breaths/minute. Assist physician in setting up for intubation procedure.
3. What does the Silverman-Anderson index measure?
- Respiratory difficulty
4. What are the two major complications of O2 toxicity?
- Retrolental fibroplasias and bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
5. Necrotizing enterocolitis results from ____ and is manifested by ____. Ischemia/hypoxia results in ____.
- Ischemis hypoxia; abdominal distention, sepsis and a lack of absorption from intestines. Injury to the intestinal mucosa.
6. Intraventricular hemorrhage is more common in ____ and results in symptoms of ____.
- Premature neonates and VLBW babies.
7. What conditions make oxygenation of the newborn more difficult?
- Respiratory distress syndrome; alveolar prematurity/lack of surfactant, anemia and polycythemia.
8. In order to prevent problems with oxygenating the newborn, what parameters can the nurse observe?
- PO2 50-90, SVO2 60-80 mmHg.
9. What are the cardinal symptoms of sepsis in a newborn?
- Lethargy, temperature instability, difficulty feeding, subtle color changes, subtle behavioral changes and hyperbilirubinemia.
10. A premature baby is born and develops hypothermia. State the major nursing interventions to treat hypothermia.
- Place under radiant warmer or in incubator with temperature skin probe over liver. Warm all items touching the newborn. Place plastic wrap over neonate.
11. Nurses often weigh diapers in order to determine exact urine output in the high-risk neonate. Explain this procedure.
- Diaper is weighed in grams before applying. Weigh diaper after wetting. Calculate and record each gram or added weight as one cc of urine.
12. What factors does the nurse look for in determining the newborn’s ability to take in nourishment by nipple/mouth?
- Good suck, coordinated suck-swallow, takes less than 20 minutes to feed, gaining 20-30 gm/day.
13. What complications are associated with total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?
- Hyperglycemia, electrolyte imbalance, dehydration, and infection.
14. In order to prevent rickets in the preterm newborn, what supplement is given?
- Calcium and vitamin D.
15. List 4 nursing interventions to enhance family/parent adjustment to a high-risk newborn.
- Initiate early visitation at ICU. Provide daily information to family. Encourage participation in support group for parents. Encourage all attempts at care-giving (enhances bonding).
16. List risk factors for hyperbilirubinemia.
- Rh incompatibility, ABO incompatibility, prematurity, sepsis, perinatal asphyxia.
17. List symptoms of hyperbilirubinemia in the neonate.
- Bilirubin levels rising 5mg/day, jaundice, dark urine, anemia, high reticulocyte (RBC) count, and dark stools.
18. Write one nursing diagnosis generated from the data pertinent to hyperbilirubinemia.
- Potential for injury related to predisposition of bilirubin for fat cells in brain.
19. List 3 nursing interventions for the neonate undergoing phototherapy.
- Apply opaque mask over eyes. Leave diaper loose so stools/urine can be monitored. Turn every 2 hours. Watch for dehydration.
20. List the symptoms of neonatal narcotic withdrawal.
- Irritability, hyperactivity, high-pitched cry, frantic sucking, coarse flapping tremors, and poor feeding.
21. Neonates who are “sick” are prone to receive too much stimulation in the form of invasive procedures and handling too little developmentally-appropriate stimulation and affection. How might such an infant respond?
- Failure to thrive, lack of crying.
22. How should the nurse determine the length of a tube needed for oral gavage feeding of a newborn?
- From the bridge of the nose, to the earlobe, to a point halfway between the xiphoid and the umbilicus.
23. What are the 2 best ways to test for correct placement of the gavage tube in the infant’s stomach?
- Aspiration of stomach contents with pH testing, and auscultation of air bubble injected into stomach.
24. What characteristics would the nurse expect to see in a neonate with fetal alcohol syndrome?
- Microcephaly, growth retardation, short palpebral fissures, and maxillary hypophysia.